امتحان mcq_2

Plasma protein binding of drugs:
a. Prolongs the half life of drugs
b. Increases the bio-availability of drugs
c. Increases the renal clearance of drugs
d. Increases the volume of distribution of drugs
e. Favors early onset of action of drugs
Key: a


2. Absorption of drugs from gastrointestinal tract occurs more:
a. In ionized state
b. With larger molecular size
c. In case of tertiary amines
d. With greater water solubility
e. With longer disintegration time
Key: c


3. By knowing the half -life of a drug we can find out:
a. The dose of the drug
b. Bio-availability of the drug
c. Time to reach the steady state
d. Rate of absorption
e. The pattern of their distribution in body
Key: c


4. Which of the following conjugation reactions occurs inside the
microsomes of hepatocytes?
a. Sulfate conjugation
b. Acetylation
c. Glycine conjugation
d. Glucuronide conjugation
e. Glutathione conjugation
Key: d


5. Therapeutic index of a drug:
a. Is obtained by dividing ED50 by LD50
b. Is greater if a drug is more toxic
c. Is high if therapeutic widow is narrow
d. Is low if the drug has more tissue biding
e. Is low if the slope of its dose-response curve is steep
Key: e




Page 2 of 13
MBBS SECOND PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION 2007
PHARMACOLOGY AND THERAPEUTICS (MCQs)
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Table of Specification: MCQ No. 6 – 9.

6. Which of the following drugs should be administered to reverse
the bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation?
a. Adrenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Dobutamine
d. Atropine
e. Theophylline
Key: d


7. Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs shows relative
selectivity for M1 receptors?
a. Tropicamide
b. Ipratropium
c. Glycopyrrolate
d. Hyoscine
e. Pirenzepine
Key: e


8. Which of the following actions of epinephrine is mediated through
Beta-1 receptors?
a. Release of renin from JG cells of kidneys
b. Glycogenolysis in liver
c. Negative feed-back at presynaptic adrenergic nerve endings
d. Bronchodilatation
e. Relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle
Key: a


9. Pralidoxime is administered to patients suffering from poisoning
with Organophosphorous compounds to:
a. Reduce the cholinergic effects
b. Reactivate cholinesterase enzyme
c. Counter te central effects of acetylcholine
d. Prevent the respiratory embarrassment
e. Stimulate production of fresh cholinesterase
Key: b


Table of Specification: MCQ No. 10 -16

10. A patient of Parkinson’s disease is taking a combination of
levodopa and carbidopa. T he role of carbidopa is to block:
a. Reuptake of dopamine in substantia nigra.
b. DOPA decarboxylase in the brain.
c. DOPA decarboxylase in peripheral tissues
d. monoamine oxidase in the neostriatum.
e. COMT in peripheral tissues.
Key: c






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11. A patient is suffering from Absence -seizure concomitant with
generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which of the following drugs is
effective against both the disorders?
a. Phenytoin
b. Ethosuximide
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Diazepam
e. Valproate sodium
Key: e


12. Which of the following endocrine abnormality may be produced by
D-2 receptor blockade caused by Phenothiazines?
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Hyperprolactinaemia
c. Iatrogenic Cushing’s Syndrome
d. Diabetes mellitus
e. Diabetes insipidus
Key: b


13. The risk of the following adverse reaction increases when
se lective -serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used in combination
with mono amine oxidase inhibitors:
a. Antimuscarinic effects
b. Alpha adrenoceptor blocking effect
c. Reduced sexual function
d. Serotonin syndrome
e. Cardiac arrhythmias
Key: d


14. Which of the following benzodiazepines is converted into its
active metabolite by gastric hydrochloric acid?
a. Clorazepate
b. Alprazolam
c. Bromazepam
d. Oxazepam
e. Diazepam
Key: a


15. In a person addicted to Morphine, tolerance will not develop to:
a. Euphorea
b. Miosis
c. Analgesic effect
d. Respiratory depressant effect
e. Sedative effect
Key: b




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16. Induction of general anaesthesia with Thiopentone sodium should
not be undertaken in a patient suffering from:
a. Congestive cardiac failure
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Hypertension
d. Bronchial asthma
e. Acute intermittent porphyria
Key: e


Table of Specification: MCQ No. 17 –21.

17. Which of the following Antipyretic is preferred for relief of fever
in a child of four years age?
a. Naproxen
b. Aspirin
c. Diclofenac
d. Paracetamol
e. Piroxicam
Key: d


18. Use of highly selective COX-2 Inhibitors like Rofecoxib may be
associated with increased risk of:
a. Gastrointestinal bleeding
b. Nephropathy
c. Cardiovascular events
d. Hepatotoxicity
e. Reduced platelet count
Key: c


19. Aspirin is not used in young children for antipyretic effect,
because it may be associated with:
a. Salicylism
b. Hypoprothrombinemia
c. Renal impairment
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Reye’s syndrome
Key: e


20. A disease modifying drug used in rheumatoid arthritis that also
chelates copper is:
a. Penicillamine
b. Aurothiomalate
c. Methotrexate
d. Sulfasalazine
e. Etanercept
Key: a




Page 5 of 13
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21. Colchicine is helpful in management of acute gout by:
a. Increasing urinary excretion of uric acid
b. Reduced production of uric acid
c. Exerting strong analgesic effect
d. Inhibiting migration of leukocytes into the inflamed joints
e. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme in the inflamed joints.
Key: d


Table of Specification: MCQ No. 22 –26.

22. Which one of the following drugs exhibits its anti-hypertensive
effect primarily by reduction of peripheral resistance?
a. Diltiazem
b. Clonidine
c. Verapamil
d. Amlodipine
e. Atenolol
Key: d


23. A cardioselective beta receptor blocker that also possesses
intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (partial agonist activity) and
membrane stabilizing action (local anaesthetic effect) is:
a. Esmolol
b. Acebutolol
c. Carvedilol
d. Sotalol
e. Timolol
Key: b


24. A calcium channel blocker preferably used in subarachnoid
haemorrhage is :
a. Verapamil
b. Nifedipine
c. Diltiazem
d. Amlodipine
e. Nimodipine
Key: e


25. Which of the following drugs is preferred for treatment of digoxin-
induced cardiac arrythmias?
a. Procainamide
b. Phenytoin
c. D-Sotalol
d. Amiodarone
e. Flecainide
Key: b